I recently received my Y-111 results. I have only one match who shares my surname. His earliest known paternal-line ancestor, born in the early 19thC, was from Lancashire, about 12 miles from where my earliest known paternal-line ancestor lived in the 16thC. My match took the Y-37 test, but does not match me at the 37-marker level - he is only a match (an exact one) at 25 markers. I suspect that if we are related, our most recent common ancestor lived during or before the 16thC - the surname is recorded in the area from the 13thC, though it may have been used by several unrelated families. However, I'm not sure whether the fact that we do not match at 37 markers rules out any relationship within a historical timeframe, i.e. the 25-marker match is likely to reflect shared ancestry before the adoption of surnames(?) For context, I have other matches at 25, 37 and 67 markers who do not share my surname - with a minimum genetic distance of 3 on my 37-marker matches and 5 at 67 markers.
I'm curious about this because my family moved from England to Ireland in the 17thC and meaningful matches with other Bridges with origins in Lancashire would help to rule out an NPE in the subsequent centuries - and also highlight connections to other family branches. I would be grateful for any steers on this, though I realise that it might require Big Y testing of a number of descendants to provide useful insights.
Best wishes,
Mark
I'm curious about this because my family moved from England to Ireland in the 17thC and meaningful matches with other Bridges with origins in Lancashire would help to rule out an NPE in the subsequent centuries - and also highlight connections to other family branches. I would be grateful for any steers on this, though I realise that it might require Big Y testing of a number of descendants to provide useful insights.
Best wishes,
Mark
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