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origin of the Germanic tribes

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  • Johnserrat
    replied
    There is absolutely no evidence whatsoever that "I" predates "R" in europe. To suggest that Is spoke a non-IE language in europe is completely unsupportable.

    There is no evidence of any invasion by Rs into I territories in europe following the Last Global Maximum.

    Is and Rs in north-western europe have been admixed for many thousands of years. The germanic languages have not been around nearly that long. Similarly, the celtic areas were also admixed thousands of years prior to celtic languages developing. These respective cultures are really not very old compared to the haplogroups under discussion here.

    I should further note that haplogroup I is believed to have entered europe around 20-25,000 years ago. This does not make I old enough to have formed part of the initial cro-magnon population.

    John

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  • Stevo
    replied
    Originally posted by Hando
    WHat about in the other Scandinavia countries? Norway and Sweden. What is the prevalent Y DNA there?
    Norway is about 30% R1b1c of various kinds, about 30% R1a, and about 30% I1a.

    Denmark is about 50% R1b1c, roughly 50% or so of it apparently R1b1c9. I think it is about 30-40% I1a and about 10-15% R1a.

    Sweden is about 25% R1b1c, most of it the South and West, I believe. It may be about 40-50% I1a, with the highest proportions in the North. The rest is mostly R1a and N3, I believe.

    I agree with Tim Peterman that I predates R1b1c and R1a in Europe and is pre-Indo-European.

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  • T E Peterman
    replied
    The 2005 map of Europe by J. D. McDonald can be somewhat informative on this matter. The following are over 75% R1b:

    Ireland
    Scotland
    Wales
    the Basques

    The following are 50 to 75% R1b:
    England
    France
    Spain
    Portugal
    Denmark

    The following are just under 50% R1b:
    Germany
    Italy
    Iceland

    The following are about 25% +- R1b:
    Norway
    Sweden
    Czech Rep
    Austria
    Hungary
    Poland
    Rumania

    The rest are less than 20%.

    The following is over 50% R1a:
    Poland

    The following are close to 50% R1a:
    western Russia
    Ukraine
    Austria
    Czech Rep

    The following are about 25% to 33% R1a:
    Norway
    Estonia

    The following are about 20 to 25% R1a:
    Sweden
    Lapland
    Germany
    Rumania
    Hungary
    Macedonia
    Iceland

    The rest are less than 20%

    The following are about 40 to 50% I:
    Sweden
    Macedonia
    Ukraine

    The following are about 25 to 40% I:
    Iceland
    England
    France
    Norway
    Denmark
    Lapland
    Rumania
    Hungary

    The following are 20 to 25% I:
    Scotland
    Ireland
    Wales
    Portugal
    Austria
    Germany
    Czech Rep
    Greece
    Poland
    western Russia
    Poland
    Finland

    The picture that emerges is a population component of I spread across Europe, in most places maybe a quarter of the population, but in parts of the Balkans & Scandinavia rising to nearly 50%.

    R1b is the majority population component in most centum speaking lands (Celtic, Italic, and Germany)

    R1a comes close to a majority in most satem speaking lands (Slavic) -at least it is greater than the R1b content.

    Let's take a look at the difference between France and Germany, since these nations are on the frontline of this issue. France was the home of the Gauls, and Germany was supposedly settled by Germans:

    France is just over 50% R1b
    Germany is just under 50% R1b

    France is about 30% I
    Germany is just under 25% I

    France is less than 10% R1a
    Germany is nearly 25% R1a

    The R1a content is the main difference. Perhaps the substrate that made German different from the other centum languages was ...an influence from an extinct satem language (rather than a non-IE language)

    The one thing that stands out in the Celtic/ Basque, Atlantic fringe populations is the almost complete absence of R1a.

    Where the R1a content increases somewhat to between 10% and close to 33%, but remains generally less than or equal to the R1b content, people tend to speak Germanic languages -this includes Scandinavia.

    Where the R1a overtakes the R1b content in a big way, people tend to speak Slavic languages.

    Sadly, I must maintain that the original language of the "I" folk is most likely extinct.

    Timothy Peterman

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  • Hando
    replied
    Originally posted by Stevo

    As I mentioned earlier, the consensus among linguists, especially Germanicists, is that Proto-German originated among the Jastorf and Harpstedt cultures of NW Germany and the Netherlands respectively. Those areas are 55% or more R1b1c, and 50% or more of that is R1b1c9. R1b1c9 is also prevalent in nearby Denmark, where it is also about 50% of the R1b1c.
    WHat about in the other Scandinavia countries? Norway and Sweden. What is the prevalent Y DNA there?

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  • Stevo
    replied
    Originally posted by Haganus
    But there exist the problem of the origin of the R 1b. Most of the
    R1b haplogroups live in west and southwest Europe. In West-Europe
    (the Netherlands, Scandinavia and Germans) R1 b have fair hair and
    blue eyes. In southwest Europe they are dark haired. This is a
    strange situation. The ancient Cro-Magnons were fair hair, see
    the ancient Guanchos of the Canarian Islands. Maybe dark haired
    mediterraneans from Asia Minor invaded Spain?

    There exist a theory of Ellen Levy-Coffmann that the haplogroup
    R 1b came to West-Europe after the ice age. Who can tell and give
    me more explanation?

    Erik
    Physical appearance is a matter of autosomal dna and has a lot to do with long residence in a particular kind of environment.

    Remember also that there is still another side to the dna equation, and that is mtDNA.

    Also there are different genetic mixes in different regions. It's not as if you are looking at 100% unadulterated R1b1c anywhere.

    As I mentioned earlier, the consensus among linguists, especially Germanicists, is that Proto-German originated among the Jastorf and Harpstedt cultures of NW Germany and the Netherlands respectively. Those areas are 55% or more R1b1c, and 50% or more of that is R1b1c9. R1b1c9 is also prevalent in nearby Denmark, where it is also about 50% of the R1b1c.
    Last edited by Stevo; 26 April 2008, 09:51 PM.

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  • Haganus
    replied
    But there exist the problem of the origin of the R 1b. Most of the
    R1b haplogroups live in west and southwest Europe. In West-Europe
    (the Netherlands, Scandinavia and Germans) R1 b have fair hair and
    blue eyes. In southwest Europe they are dark haired. This is a
    strange situation. The ancient Cro-Magnons were fair hair, see
    the ancient Guanchos of the Canarian Islands. Maybe dark haired
    mediterraneans from Asia Minor invaded Spain?

    There exist a theory of Ellen Levy-Coffmann that the haplogroup
    R 1b came to West-Europe after the ice age. Who can tell and give
    me more explanation?

    Erik

    Leave a comment:


  • T E Peterman
    replied
    A lot of people will respond by pointing out that language isn't carried by DNA and is a cultural phenomenon. Yet, each language originated from some place -some population in the remote past. By categorizing populations according to y-DNA or mitochondrial DNA analysis, it gives us a way of looking at people without relying on aspects as superficial as geography or physical appearance.

    Within Europe, there are two huge y-DNA families: R and "I". There are other smaller Y groups, but to simplify things a bit, let's consider R and "I". How closely related are these patrilines? How far back in time does one have to go to find a common, patrilineal ancestor? Estimates vary, but the common ancestor could have lived as far back as 40,000 to 50,000 years ago.

    What do we know about the Indo-European language family? It has been estimated by some linguists that this language family originated in about 8500 BC, plus or minus a thousand years. Common sense tells us that this language must have arisen in a single population & then spread from there, either by population growth or diffusion. Considering that the common ancestor of R & I lived tens of thousands of years earlier, it seems logical that Indo-European languages could have arisen in one or the other (or neither), but not both.

    Which non-Indo European languages are the Indo-European languages most similar to? This is important, because it might give us a clue to the origin of proto-Indo European. I'm no linguist, but most charts show that these languages are from Siberia and include: Uralic, Altaic, Turkic, Manchurian, etc., and beyond them, Amerind (a name for 95% of languages spoken by Native Americans).

    Now let's consider who R and "I" are most closely related to. R is a genetic "brother" to Q. Q is usually found in Native Americans and in northern Siberia. The combined group of RQ is called P. P is a genetic "brother" to NO, M, and L. NO is the y-DNA ancestor of many East Asians, as well as Uralic, Finno-Ugric peoples from all across Russia. L is found in India, and M is found in Papua New Guinea. Together, P, NO, M, and L are all nested under K. The important point here is that R's patrilineal next of kin, were in East Asia & most specifically (consider Q) eastern Siberia.

    What about "I"? His genetic "brother" is the J haplogroup, which is represented today by Jews, Arabs, Berbers in North Africa, and is considered by many to be the haplogroup of neolithic farmers that spread from the Near East into Europe, bringing farming technology with them. Together IJ is a "brother" to G, which is strongest in the Caucasus, H, which is strongest in India, and K, which is the ancestor to all of the above. G, H, IJ, and K are all nested under F. F is the common ancestor, thus, of R and "I" who lived 40,000 to 50,000 years ago.

    Until one considers the K haplogroup, "I" doesn't have any relatives in Siberia, or East Asia. "I" and J don't appear to have ever crossed Central Asia. J remained in the Middle East, while "I" spread into Europe. After the death of the Neanderthals, "I" may have had Europe all to itself for many thousands of years, until the arrival of the R haplogroup from eastern Siberia.

    "I" wouldn't have had any reason to speak a language that is similar to Uralic, Altaic, Turkic, Manchurian, & Amerind, until exposed by contact to people who already did. The principle of parsimony suggests that R brought the Indo-European languages to Europe and the "I" folk adopted it, adding their influence when they did.

    What language did the "I" folk speak? Of course, that remains a mystery. Basque and Etruscan are thought to be distantly related to Caucasian. But the "I" folk are as distantly related to the G folk of the Caucasus, as they are to the K>P>R folk of eastern Siberia. Many of the J folk of the Middle East, speak languages that are Semitic, belonging to the Afro-Asiatic language family. But some linguists suggest that this language group arose in north Central Africa, by a people long gone -that population moved eastward & northward as the Sahara Desert dried up, which suggest to me that Afro-Asiatic was the language of E3b.

    All that this tells us is that the "I" and J folk probably didn't originate the Semitic languages, although many of the J folk obviously adopted them. The Sumerians of Mesopotamia, who may have been an early J population, spoke a language that was said to be unrelated to any other language & it may have been a relic of the earlier J language.

    It's sad to think, but the language family represented by the people who domesticated wheat & cattle in the Middle East, and were the great painters of caves in Europe, may be gone from this planet, not represented by any contemporary language.

    Timothy Peterman

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  • Hando
    replied
    Originally posted by T E Peterman
    Contrary to what Aryan theorists would have proposed decades ago, the Germans are less pure than other parts of Europe, at least when it comes to y-DNA. The overwhelming majority belong to either R1b, R1a, or I1a -neither of these groups really comprises a substantial majority. Some have suggested that R1b roughly corresponds to Celts, R1a to Slavs, & I1a to Scandinavians;

    proto-Germanic language was shifted by influence from a non-Indo European group. I suggest that this non IE population may have been the I1a component.

    Timothy Peterman
    So if Scandinavians are I1a, then are you saying that Scandinavians are non-Indo European?

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  • Haganus
    replied
    But if there is no substratum in Germanic languages, when does the
    Germanic language arise? And where? In Scandinavia? If the Germanic language arose at the European continent, then other non indo-european
    languages must be spoken in Scandinavia before.

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  • Johnserrat
    replied
    The germanic substrate hypothesis has largely fallen out of favour as more and more Indo-European etymologies are found for the words previously believed to have been part of a non-IE substrate language.

    John

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  • T E Peterman
    replied
    Contrary to what Aryan theorists would have proposed decades ago, the Germans are less pure than other parts of Europe, at least when it comes to y-DNA. The overwhelming majority belong to either R1b, R1a, or I1a -neither of these groups really comprises a substantial majority. Some have suggested that R1b roughly corresponds to Celts, R1a to Slavs, & I1a to Scandinavians; of course all 3 are far older than any type of Celtic, Slavic, or Scandinavian identity.

    The R1b component of Germans was probably R1b1c9, which apparently was one of the earliest offshoots of the R1b1c trunk. The group probably spoke a proto-Germanic language 1000s of years ago, that may have been more similar to the proto Celtic/ proto-Italic languages than it would have been to modern German. This proto-Germanic language was shifted by influence from a non-Indo European group. I suggest that this non IE population may have been the I1a component.

    Timothy Peterman

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  • Stevo
    replied
    According to Dr. J. P. Mallory, in his book, In Search of the Indo-Europeans, the consensus among linguists is that the Germanic languages began with the Jastorf Culture of NW Germany and the neighboring Harpstedt Culture nearby in the Netherlands.

    Those areas are predominantly R1b1c, especially R1b1c9.

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  • Haganus
    started a topic origin of the Germanic tribes

    origin of the Germanic tribes

    Who knows much more about the origin of the Germanic tribes.? Or they had an origin in Scandinavia or in the continent. I cannot believe the Germanic tribes simultanously lived in Norwegian and Sweden and Germany. Who can give me more information?

    Where did their ancestors live during the Ice Age? In southwest
    France? R 1b is for them very important and perhaps the
    Cro-Magnos had R 1 b. But according to Ellen Levy-Koffmann R 1b had
    not a French, but Caucasian origin.
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