I am confused about the defining markers for mtDNA Haplogroup I (a.k.a. Clan Iris or Isha).
The Family Tree DNA site for this haplogroup says that they are:
16129A, 16223T, 16391A
However, I have just visited Bryan Sykes' website http://www.bloodoftheisles.net, and it seems that he lumps people without the 391 mutation into Haplogroup I. More confusingly, on Mitosearch.org, I see two people with the same HVR1 mutations in different haplogroups:
EW5C5 N* 129A,223T,519C
D66HX I 129A,223T,519C
Granted, the "I" individual had his/her HVR2 region tested, while the N* individual did not. Maybe the "I" individual's 391 mutation flipped back?
Still, there are no HVR2 results in the mtDNA PDF showing the profiles Sykes has collected from the British Isles. How do you know if someone is Hap I without either the 391 mutation or an HVR2 sequence? Does Sykes just define Hap I differently than others do?
Thanks in advance!
britzkrieg
The Family Tree DNA site for this haplogroup says that they are:
16129A, 16223T, 16391A
However, I have just visited Bryan Sykes' website http://www.bloodoftheisles.net, and it seems that he lumps people without the 391 mutation into Haplogroup I. More confusingly, on Mitosearch.org, I see two people with the same HVR1 mutations in different haplogroups:
EW5C5 N* 129A,223T,519C
D66HX I 129A,223T,519C
Granted, the "I" individual had his/her HVR2 region tested, while the N* individual did not. Maybe the "I" individual's 391 mutation flipped back?
Still, there are no HVR2 results in the mtDNA PDF showing the profiles Sykes has collected from the British Isles. How do you know if someone is Hap I without either the 391 mutation or an HVR2 sequence? Does Sykes just define Hap I differently than others do?
Thanks in advance!
britzkrieg
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