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Here's a quote from one of the essays that I find very revealing:
Regardless of the relations and influences (whether these are close or remote) that can be traced as part of the study of the different aspects that make up a society, the Celtiberians never constituted an identifiable social, cultural, or political unit. Hence, the study of this group must be geared toward an analysis of the historical process that developed throughout an amalgamation of populations that inhabited a territory defined by Classical writers as "Celtiberia".
On the Genographic Project, Spencer Wells gives a short video summary of each haplogroup. (This might only be visible to those who have actually joined the project--e.g., by paying $15 to transfer DNA information from FTDNA to the project.)
Wells considers it "possible" that the Celts were haplogroup I and spread it throughout central and western Europe. Surely he can't be referring to I1b, which is mostly Slavic, nor I1a, which is mostly Scandinavian. Perhaps he is referring only to I1c?
The site's Atlas of the Human Journey used to say that about Y-Haplogroup I but no longer does. Now it says something equally silly about the Vikings, as if such groups from relatively recent recorded history were genetically homogeneous.
I chalk such things up to marketing. What better way to get someone to purchase a kit than to make him think he might find out his ancestors were Vikings?
There is not enough I in the formerly Celtic regions of Europe to make the Celts primarily members of that y-haplogroup.
Some have said the Celts were all R1b, but I don't buy that either. Many R1bs were Celts, many others were not. Some or many Is were Celts, many more probably were not.
Celt is an ethno-linguistic term, not a genetic one.
The attempts to make all Slavs R1a and all Teutons I1a are equally misguided.
On the Genographic Project, Spencer Wells gives a short video summary of each haplogroup. (This might only be visible to those who have actually joined the project--e.g., by paying $15 to transfer DNA information from FTDNA to the project.)
Wells considers it "possible" that the Celts were haplogroup I and spread it throughout central and western Europe. Surely he can't be referring to I1b, which is mostly Slavic, nor I1a, which is mostly Scandinavian. Perhaps he is referring only to I1c?
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