Wikipedia claims that I1a did not originate from Scandinavia, as previously believed, but spread from Normandy within the last 1000 years. Weren't Normans descendants of Norwegian Vikings? And why is the haplogroup so common in Iceland that was settled more than 1000 years ago? I don't think the haplomap of I1a support this "Out of Normandy" theory either.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_I_%28Y-DNA%29
"Some subclades of I, such as I1a, were previously believed to be also of Scandinavian populations. However, recent research done by Scandinavian researchers has shown this assumption to be false. I1a seems to be recently, (within the last 1000 years), from Normandy and to be tracable to the Anglo-Saxon migrations North from Southern Europe. Its true source is still not known. "
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_I_%28Y-DNA%29
"Some subclades of I, such as I1a, were previously believed to be also of Scandinavian populations. However, recent research done by Scandinavian researchers has shown this assumption to be false. I1a seems to be recently, (within the last 1000 years), from Normandy and to be tracable to the Anglo-Saxon migrations North from Southern Europe. Its true source is still not known. "
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