Is it correct to assume that if an offspring has 25% of a particular value, say "West Asian", on a given chromosome, while a tested parent has 5% "West Asian" on the same chromosome, then the excess percentage (and perhaps more) must have come to the offspring from the other parent?
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Originally posted by irenych View PostIs it correct to assume that if an offspring has 25% of a particular value, say "West Asian", on a given chromosome, while a tested parent has 5% "West Asian" on the same chromosome, then the excess percentage (and perhaps more) must have come to the offspring from the other parent?
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Originally posted by thetick View PostI don't understand the details of you question. Segments (parts of chromosomes) are passed either from the father or the mother. I don't understand what you mean by values with percentages and geographical locations.
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Originally posted by irenych View PostGedmatch uses Dienekes' nomenclature. "West European" "East European" "Mediterranean" etc. I assumed that if the total "West European" in a particular chromosome, say chromosome 5, from the tested mother was 40% (Gedmatch analysis) and 50% in the offspring in the same chromosome, then the difference would have come from the other parent.
So in the extreme case for illustration: a mother being Chinese and German and a father being African and Indian.
They could in theory have two drastically different children
One with 50% Chinese and 50% African and the other child 50%German and 50% Indian. Now most likely one would get children with 25% each but if you go down to chromosomal level a child certainly could but rarely get a complete chromosome from one parent. All degrees in between and including the extreme and the 25% average are possible.
So the answer is most likely percentage-wise yes, but there could be drastic variations.
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