Hi guys,
I'm pretty new to this, so I apologize if this is something simple. I have tested on FTDNA and thought I'd test on ancestry too to see the differences and utilize the different databases.
It says 40% ireland/scotland/Wales, but when broken down, it gives me the northern England and Midlands region. The England percentage is 7% and gives me the same region but actually lists it as a subregion. (attached screenshots for clarity)
Does this mean that I mainly have Celtic ancestry, but too far away to vague to give me a clear indication as to the regions involved, so chose an overlapping region to compensate? Or am I getting this wrong? Because surely, if that was not the case, my Great Britain percentage should be the highest as the main host of that particular sub-region?
Any insight would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks
I'm pretty new to this, so I apologize if this is something simple. I have tested on FTDNA and thought I'd test on ancestry too to see the differences and utilize the different databases.
It says 40% ireland/scotland/Wales, but when broken down, it gives me the northern England and Midlands region. The England percentage is 7% and gives me the same region but actually lists it as a subregion. (attached screenshots for clarity)
Does this mean that I mainly have Celtic ancestry, but too far away to vague to give me a clear indication as to the regions involved, so chose an overlapping region to compensate? Or am I getting this wrong? Because surely, if that was not the case, my Great Britain percentage should be the highest as the main host of that particular sub-region?
Any insight would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks
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