Fascinatingly, a large portion of Ashkenazic Jews and especially
Levites possess what most consider the typically "Aryan" marker, R1a.
Has the possibility ever been considered that this Indo-European
heritage of the Levites, the putatively most endogamous group among
the Jews, is not a reflection of recent Khazar and Slavic
intermixture but reflective of an elite core of priestly Indo-
Europeans within the ancient Israelites? (Some serious scholars have
postulated an ideological and/or racial connection between the
ancient Levites and the Indo-European Luvites/Luwians.) Myself not
being a full-blown geneticist yet (-I'm only 20-), I wonder if one
can look at this DNA and decisively determine whether its
chronological status in certain Jews is actually recent or ancient?
Considering the modern Sephardim are so intermixed with Arabs, is it
useful to use them for purposes of comparison and to consider them as
*the* representative Jewish group?
...Also, some have characterized a certain R1a Norse signature as
indicative of Hunnish or Asiatic heritage. Yet, according to the
scientists, R1a was ultimately born in the Ukrainian Kurgans.
Subsequent migrations might have sent this R1a deep into Asia, but
isn't the Ukraine considered part of Eastern EUROPE and thus the
Western world? R1a originally sprung up and is native to the West, so
I question the utility of designating any of its branches as
genuinely Asiatic, Hunnish, Chinese or Mongolian or whatever.
Levites possess what most consider the typically "Aryan" marker, R1a.
Has the possibility ever been considered that this Indo-European
heritage of the Levites, the putatively most endogamous group among
the Jews, is not a reflection of recent Khazar and Slavic
intermixture but reflective of an elite core of priestly Indo-
Europeans within the ancient Israelites? (Some serious scholars have
postulated an ideological and/or racial connection between the
ancient Levites and the Indo-European Luvites/Luwians.) Myself not
being a full-blown geneticist yet (-I'm only 20-), I wonder if one
can look at this DNA and decisively determine whether its
chronological status in certain Jews is actually recent or ancient?
Considering the modern Sephardim are so intermixed with Arabs, is it
useful to use them for purposes of comparison and to consider them as
*the* representative Jewish group?
...Also, some have characterized a certain R1a Norse signature as
indicative of Hunnish or Asiatic heritage. Yet, according to the
scientists, R1a was ultimately born in the Ukrainian Kurgans.
Subsequent migrations might have sent this R1a deep into Asia, but
isn't the Ukraine considered part of Eastern EUROPE and thus the
Western world? R1a originally sprung up and is native to the West, so
I question the utility of designating any of its branches as
genuinely Asiatic, Hunnish, Chinese or Mongolian or whatever.
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